[May-2022]Valid Braindump2go CISM VCE and PDF Dumps CISM 1959Q Offer[Q1890-Q1928]
May/2022 Latest Braindump2go CISM Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new CISM Real Exam Questions!
The PRIMARY advantage of single sign-on (SSO) is that it will:
A. increase the security of related applications.
B. support multiple authentication mechanisms.
C. increase efficiency of access management.
D. strengthen user passwords.
Which of the following would provide the MOST useful information when prioritizing controls to be added to a system?
A. Baseline to industry standards
B. The risk register
C. Balanced scorecard
D. Compliance requirements
An organization has recently acquired a smaller company located in a different geographic region.
Which of the following is the BEST approach for addressing conflicts between the parent organization’s security standards and local regulations affecting the acquired company?
A. Adopt the standards of the newly acquired company.
B. Give precedence to the parent organization’s standards.
C. Create a global version of the local regulations,
D. Create a local version of the parent organization’s standards.
An organization has decided to outsource its disaster recovery function. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when drafting the service level agreement (SLA)?
A. Recovery time objectives (RTOs)
B. Testing requirements
C. Recovery point objectives (RPOs)
D. Authorization chain
Which of the following MOST effectively allows for disaster recovery testing without interrupting business operations?
A. Full interruption testing
B. Simulation testing
C. Parallel testing
D. Structured walk-through
When defining and communicating roles and responsibilities between an organization and cloud service provider, which of the following situations would present the GREATEST risk to the organization’s ability to ensure information risk is managed appropriately?
A. The Service agreement results in unnecessary duplication of effort because shared responsibilities have not been clearly defined.
B. The organization and provider identified multiple information security responsibilities that neither party was planning to provide.
C. The service agreement uses a custom-developed RACI instead of an industry standard RACI to document responsibilities.
D. The organization believes the provider accepted responsibility for issues affecting security that the provider did not accept.
An organization has implemented a new security control in response to a recently discovered vulnerability. Several employees have voiced concerns that the control disrupts their ability to work. Which of the following is the information security manager’s BEST course of action?
A. Educate users about the vulnerability.
B. Report the control risk to senior management.
C. Accept the vulnerability.
D. Evaluate compensating control options.
An incident response team recently encountered an unfamiliar type of cyber event. Though the team was able to resalve the issue, it took a significant amount of time to identify, What is the BEST way to help ensure similar incidents are identified more quickly in the future?
A. Implement a SIEM solution.
B. Perform a post-incident review.
C. Perform a threat analysis.
D. Establish performance metrics for the team.
An organization’s ClO has tasked the information security manager with drafting the charter for an information security steering committee. The committee will be comprised of the C/O, the IT shared services manager, the vice president of marketing, and the information security manager. Which of the following is the MOST significant issue with the development of this committee?
A. The CIO is not taking charge of the committee.
B. There is a conflict of interest between the business and IT.
C. The committee lacks sufficient business representation.
D. The committee consists of too many senior executives.
Which of the following is MOST important to ensure when considering exceptions to an information security policy?
A. Exceptions are based on data classification.
B. Exceptions undergo regular review.
C. Exceptions reflect the organizational risk appetite.
D. Exceptions are approved by executive management.
Which of the following would be MOST useful in determining how an organization will be affected by a new regulatory requirement for cloud services?
A. Risk assessment
B. Data classification policy
C. Information asset inventory
D. Data loss protection plan
Which of the following is an information security manager’s BEST course of action upon discovering an organization with budget constraints lacks several important security capabilities?
A. Suggest the deployment of open-source security tools to mitigate identified risks.
B. Recommend that the organization avoid the most severe risks.
C. Establish a business case to demonstrate return on investment (ROI) of a security tool.
D. Review the most recent audit report and request funding to address the most serious finding.
Which of the following is the BEST way to strengthen the alignment of an information security program with business strategy?
A. Providing organizational training on information security policies
B. Increasing budget for risk assessments
C. Increasing the frequency of control assessments
D. Establishing an information security steering committee
Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of an information security governance committee?
A. Approving changes to the information security strategy
B. Discussing upcoming information security projects
C. Reviewing monthly information security metrics
D. Reviewing the information security risk register
An organization has established a bring your own device (BYOD) program. Which of the following is the MOST important security consideration when allowing employees to use personal devices for corporate applications remotely?
A. Security awareness training
B. Secure application development
C. Mobile operating systems support
D. Mandatory controls for maintaining security policy
An organization is developing a disaster recovery strategy and needs to identify each application’s criticality so that the recovery sequence can be established. Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
A. Document the data flow and review the dependencies.
B. Perform a business impact analysis (BIA) on each application.
C. Restore the applications with the shortest recovery times first.
D. Identify which applications contribute the most cash flow.
an information security manager has identified a major security event with potential noncompliance implications. Who should be notified FIRST?
A. Internal audit
B. Senior management
C. Public relations team
D. Regulatory authorities
Which of the following should be the PRIMARY focus of a status report on the information security program to senior management?
A. Demonstrating risk is managed at the desired level
B. Confirming the organization complies with security policies
C. Providing evidence that resources are performing as expected
D. Verifying security costs do not exceed the budget
To address the issue that performance pressures on IT may conflict with information security controls, itis MOST important that:
A. the Steering committee provides guidance and dispute resolution.
B. noncompliance issues are reported to senior management.
C. IT policies and procedures are better aligned to security policies.
D. the security policy is changed to accommodate IT performance pressure.
Which of the following would BEST help an organization’s ability to manage advanced persistent threats (APT)?
A. Using multiple security vendors
B. Having a skilled information security team
C. Having network detection tools in place
D. Increasing the information security budget
Priore implementing a bring your own device (BYOD) program, it is MOST important to:
A. select mobile device management (MDM) software.
B. survey employees for requested applications.
C. review currently utilized applications.
D. develop an acceptable use policy.
In an organization that has several independent security tools including intrusion detection systems (IDSs) and firewalls, which of the following is the BEST way to ensure timely detection of incidents?
A. Ensure staff are cross trained to manage all security tools.
B. Ensure that the incident response plan is endorsed by senior management.
C. Outsource the management of security tools to a service provider.
D. Implement a log aggregation and correlation solution.
Which of the following is the PRIMARY responsibility of an information security steering committee?
A. Revigwing firewall rules
B. Setting up password expiration procedures
C. Prioritizing security initiatives
D. Drafting security policies
Which of the following would be MOST helpful when determining appropriate access controls for an application?
A. End-user input
B. Industry best practices
C. Data criticality
D. Gap analysis results
Which of the following provides the MOST relevant information to determine the overall effectiveness of an information security program and underlying business processes?
A. SWOT analysis
B. Balanced scorecard
C. Cost-benefit analysis
D. Industry benchmarks
What should be an information security manager’s MOST important consideration when reviewing a proposed upgrade to a business unit’s production database?
A. Ensuring residual risk is within apbetite
B. Ensuring the application inventory is updated
C. Ensuring a cost-benefit analysis is completed
D. Ensuring senior management is aware of associated risk
Which of the following metrics provides the BEST measurement of the effectiveness of a security awareness program?
A. Mean time between incident detection and remediation
B. Variance of program cost to allocated budget
C. The number of reported security incidents
D. The number of security breaches
Which of the following is an information security manager’s FIRST priority after a high-profile system has been compromised?
A. Implement improvements to prevent recurrence.
B. Identify the malware that compromised the system.
C. Preserve incident-related data.
D. Restore the compromised system.
Which of the following should an information security manager do FIRST to address complaints that a newly implemented security control has slowed business operations?
A. Discuss the issue with senior management for direction.
B. Validate whether the control is operating as intended.
C. Remove the control and identify alternatives.
D. Conduct user awareness training.
An information security manager was informed that a planned penetration test could potentially disrupt some services.
Which of the following should be the FIRST course of action?
A. Ensure the service owner is available during the penetration test.
B. Accept the risk and document it in the risk register.
C. Estimate the impact and inform the business owner.
D. Reschedule the activity during an approved maintenance window.
What is the PRIMARY objective of implementing standard security configurations?
A. Maintain a flexible approach to mitigate potential risk to unsupported systems.
B. Compare configurations between supported and unsupported systems.
C. Minimize the operational burden of managing and monitoring unsupported systems.
D. Control vulnerabilities and reduce threats from changed configurations.
In addition to executive sponsorship and business alignment, which of the following is MOST critical for information security governance?
A. Allocation of training resources
B. Compliance with policies
C. Auditability of systems
D. Ownership of security
When developing an incident escalation process, the BEST approach is to classify incidents based on:
A. estimated time to recover.
B. information assets affected.
C. their root causes.
D. recovery point objectives (RPOs).
An employee clicked on a link in a phishing email, triggering a ransomware attack. Which of the following should be the information security manager’s FIRST step?
A. Wipe the affected system.
B. lsolate the impacted endpoints.
C. Notify senior management
D. Notify internal legal counsel.
The PRIMARY purpose for defining key risk indicators (KRIs) for a security program is to:
A. ensure mitigating controls meet specifications.
B. provide information needed to take action.
C. support investments in the security program.
D. compare security program effectiveness to benchmarks.
An information security manager is preparing incident response plans for an organization that processes personal and financial information. Which of the Following is the MOST important consideration?
A. Identifying regulatory requirements
B. Determining budgetary constraints.
C. Aligning with enterprise architecture (EA)
D. Aligning with an established industry framework
To implement effective continuous monitoring of IT controls, an information security manager needs to FIRST ensure:
A. security alerts are centralized.
B. periodic scanning of IT systems is in place.
C. metrics are communicated to senior management.
D. information assets have been classified.
Which of the following is MOST likely to be included in an enterprise security policy?
A. Retention schedules
B. Organizational risk
C. System access specifications
D. Definitions of responsibilities
Which of the following is the BEST way to build a risk-aware culture?
A. Periodically test compliance with security controls and post results.
B. Periodically change risk awareness messages.
C. Ensure that threats are communicated organization-wide in a timely manner.
D. Establish incentives and a channel for staff to report risks.
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