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September/2022 Latest Braindump2go 156-215.81 Exam Dumps with PDF and VCE Free Updated Today! Following are some new Braindump2go 156-215.81 Real Exam Questions!

QUESTION 565
Which backup utility captures the most information and tends to create the largest archives?

A. backup
B. snapshot
C. Database Revision
D. migrate export

Answer: B

QUESTION 566
Which of the following commands is used to monitor cluster members in CLI?

A. show cluster state
B. show active cluster
C. show clusters
D. show running cluster

Answer: A
Explanation:
Reference:
https://sc1.checkpoint.com/documents/R81/WebAdminGuides/EN/CP_R81_ClusterXL_AdminGuide/Topics-CXLG/Viewing-Cluster-State.htm

QUESTION 567
When enabling tracking on a rule, what is the default option?

A. Accounting Log
B. Extended Log
C. Log
D. Detailed Log

Answer: C

QUESTION 568
Gaia includes Check Point Upgrade Service Engine (CPUSE), which can directly receive updates for what components?

A. The Security Gateway (SG) and Security Management Server (SMS) software and the CPUSE engine.
B. Licensed Check Point products for the Gala operating system and the Gaia operating system itself.
C. The CPUSE engine and the Gaia operating system.
D. The Gaia operating system only.

Answer: B

QUESTION 569
Name the file that is an electronically signed file used by Check Point to translate the features in the license into a code?

A. Both License (.lic) and Contract (.xml) files
B. cp.macro
C. Contract file (.xml)
D. license File (.lie)

Answer: C

QUESTION 570
Fill in the blank: When LDAP is integrated with Check Point Security Management, it is then referred to as _______.

A. User Center
B. User Administration
C. User Directory
D. UserCheck

Answer: C

QUESTION 571
Can you use the same layer in multiple policies or rulebases?

A. Yes -a layer can be shared with multiple policies and rules.
B. No -each layer must be unique.
C. No -layers cannot be shared or reused, but an identical one can be created.
D. Yes -but it must be copied and pasted with a different name.

Answer: A

QUESTION 572
Security Gateway software blades must be attached to what?

A. Security Gateway
B. Security Gateway container
C. Management server
D. Management container

Answer: A

QUESTION 573
Which tool allows you to monitor the top bandwidth on smart console?

A. Logs & Monitoring
B. Smart Event
C. Gateways & Severs Tab
D. SmartView Monitor

Answer: D

QUESTION 574
A security zone is a group of one or more network interfaces from different centrally managed gateways. What is considered part of the zone?

A. The zone is based on the network topology and determined according to where the interface leads to.
B. Security Zones are not supported by Check Point firewalls.
C. The firewall rule can be configured to include one or more subnets in a zone.
D. The local directly connected subnet defined by the subnet IP and subnet mask.

Answer: A

QUESTION 575
When comparing Stateful Inspection and Packet Filtering, what is a benefit that Stateful Inspection offers over Packer Filtering?

A. Stateful Inspection offers unlimited connections because of virtual memory usage.
B. Stateful Inspection offers no benefits over Packet Filtering.
C. Stateful Inspection does not use memory to record the protocol used by the connection.
D. Only one rule is required for each connection.

Answer: D

QUESTION 576
Fill in the blanks: Gaia can be configured using _______ the ________.

A. Command line interface; WebUI
B. Gaia Interface; GaiaUI
C. WebUI; Gaia Interface
D. GaiaUI; command line interface

Answer: A

QUESTION 577
An administrator can use section titles to more easily navigate between large rule bases. Which of these statements is FALSE?

A. Section titles are not sent to the gateway side.
B. These sections are simple visual divisions of the Rule Base and do not hinder the order of rule enforcement.
C. A Sectional Title can be used to disable multiple rules by disabling only the sectional title.
D. Sectional Titles do not need to be created in the SmartConsole.

Answer: C

QUESTION 578
A stateful inspection firewall works by registering connection data and compiling this information.
Where is the information stored?

A. In the system SMEM memory pool.
B. In State tables.
C. In the Sessions table.
D. In a CSV file on the firewall hard drive located in $FWDIR/conf/.

Answer: B

QUESTION 579
What is the RFC number that act as a best practice guide for NAT?

A. RFC 1939
B. RFC 1950
C. RFC 1918
D. RFC 793

Answer: C

QUESTION 580
URL Filtering employs a technology, which educates users on web usage policy in real time. What is the name of that technology?

A. WebCheck
B. UserCheck
C. Harmony Endpoint
D. URL categorization

Answer: B

QUESTION 581
Name one limitation of using Security Zones in the network?

A. Security zones will not work in Automatic NAT rules
B. Security zone will not work in Manual NAT rules
C. Security zones will not work in firewall policy layer
D. Security zones cannot be used in network topology

Answer: B

QUESTION 582
Choose what BEST describes users on Gaia Platform.

A. There are two default users and neither can be deleted.
B. There are two default users and one cannot be deleted.
C. There is one default user that can be deleted.
D. There is one default user that cannot be deleted.

Answer: B

QUESTION 583
Which type of Check Point license ties the package license to the IP address of the Security Management Server?

A. Central
B. Corporate
C. Local
D. Formal

Answer: A

QUESTION 584
Which of the following is NOT an advantage to using multiple LDAP servers?

A. You achieve a faster access time by placing LDAP servers containing the database at remote sites
B. You achieve compartmentalization by allowing a large number of users to be distributed across several servers
C. Information on a user is hidden, yet distributed across several servers.
D. You gain High Availability by replicating the same information on several servers

Answer: C

QUESTION 585
When an Admin logs into SmartConsole and sees a lock icon on a gateway object and cannot edit that object, what does that indicate?

A. The gateway is not powered on.
B. Incorrect routing to reach the gateway.
C. The Admin would need to login to Read-Only mode
D. Another Admin has made an edit to that object and has yet to publish the change.

Answer: B

QUESTION 586
In order to modify Security Policies the administrator can use which of the following tools? (Choose the best answer.)

A. SmartConsole and WebUI on the Security Management Server.
B. SmartConsole or mgmt_cli (API) on any computer where SmartConsole is installed.
C. Command line of the Security Management Server or mgmt_cli.exe on any Windows computer.
D. mgmt_cli (API) or WebUI on Security Gateway and SmartConsole on the Security Management Server.

Answer: B

QUESTION 587
A SAM rule Is implemented to provide what function or benefit?

A. Allow security audits.
B. Handle traffic as defined in the policy.
C. Monitor sequence activity.
D. Block suspicious activity.

Answer: B

QUESTION 588
Is it possible to have more than one administrator connected to a Security Management Server at once?

A. Yes, but only if all connected administrators connect with read-only permissions.
B. Yes, but objects edited by one administrator will be locked for editing by others until the session is published.
C. No, only one administrator at a time can connect to a Security Management Server
D. Yes, but only one of those administrators will have write-permissions. All others will have read-only permission.

Answer: C

QUESTION 589
In order to see real-time and historical graph views of Security Gateway statistics in SmartView Monitor, what feature needs to be enabled on the Security Gateway?

A. Logging & Monitoring
B. None -the data is available by default
C. Monitoring Blade
D. SNMP

Answer: C

QUESTION 590
What is the default shell for the command line interface?

A. Clish
B. Admin
C. Normal
D. Expert

Answer: A

QUESTION 591
When configuring Anti-Spoofing, which tracking options can an Administrator select?

A. Log, Alert, None
B. Log, Allow Packets, Email
C. Drop Packet, Alert, None
D. Log, Send SNMP Trap, Email

Answer: A

QUESTION 592
Which of the following log queries would show only dropped packets with source address of 192.168.1.1 and destination address of 172.26.1.1?

A. src:192.168.1.1 OR dst:172.26.1.1 AND action:Drop
B. src:192.168.1.1 AND dst:172.26.1.1 AND action:Drop
C. 192.168.1.1 AND 172.26.1.1 AND drop
D. 192.168.1.1 OR 172.26.1.1 AND action:Drop

Answer: B

QUESTION 593
Core Protections are installed as part of what Policy?

A. Access Control Policy.
B. Desktop Firewall Policy
C. Mobile Access Policy.
D. Threat Prevention Policy.

Answer: A

QUESTION 594
In HTTPS Inspection policy, what actions are available in the "Actions" column of a rule?

A. "Inspect", "Bypass"
B. "Inspect", "Bypass", "Categorize"
C. "Inspect", "Bypass", "Block"
D. "Detect", "Bypass"

Answer: A

QUESTION 595
Fill in the blank: Browser-based Authentication sends users to a web page to acquire identities using ___________.

A. Captive Portal and Transparent Kerberos Authentication
B. UserCheck
C. User Directory
D. Captive Portal

Answer: A

QUESTION 596
With URL Filtering, what portion of the traffic is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service for analysis?

A. The complete communication is sent for inspection.
B. The IP address of the source machine.
C. The end user credentials.
D. The host portion of the URL.

Answer: D

QUESTION 597
Choose what BEST describes the reason why querying logs now are very fast.

A. The amount of logs being stored is less than previous versions.
B. New Smart-1 appliances double the physical memory install.
C. Indexing Engine indexes logs for faster search results.
D. SmartConsole now queries results directly from the Security Gateway.

Answer: B

QUESTION 598
Rugged appliances are small appliances with ruggedized hardware and like Quantum Spark appliance they use which operating system?

A. Centos Linux
B. Gaia embedded
C. Gaia
D. Red Hat Enterprise Linux version 5

Answer: B

QUESTION 599
Which application is used for the central management and deployment of licenses and packages?

A. SmartProvisioning
B. SmartLicense
C. SmartUpdate
D. Deployment Agent

Answer: C


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